QUESTION:

Jesus as mediator

If Jesus is God as you claim, and the New Testament in 1,250 odd times only ever alludes to him as God by the actual use of the word which in most places is ‘theos” and if he was from everlasting to everlasting on his resurrection, I have always understood that Trinitarians, whoever they may be, teach that Christ Jesus is part of the Godhead in total and there was no longer any need for his manliness. How can Jesus then as Paul says in 1 Timothy be a mediator between God and men, “the man Christ Jesus”. If you link that with the question the gentleman behind asked that he is there in the interim to be subject to God at all times he is inferior both before and after his resurrection. Jesus as mediator means he was not God.

MR. EVERITT:

If you use the term inferior, he is in his person equal with God; in the place he is come into he is inferior. Now the point you have referred to about 1 Timothy, Jesus as a mediator, that brings out the point where both his Godhead and his manhood are absolutely necessary. If he was not God, he couldn’t be mediator of God, and if he was not man, he couldn’t have been mediator of man. He is the one that is the answer to Job’s question “Oh that there were an umpire who could lay his hands upon us both” (Job 9:33 R.S.V.). Because he is God he is in figure (I accept Mr. Heaster’s reference that Scripture uses figures) in figure he placed his hand on God, as man he places his hand on man. Because he was both God and man Jesus was capable of being mediator, which otherwise he couldn’t have been.